I'm almost scared to read the responses on this article because I know that whenever someone says that reverse racism isn't real, people come out of the woodworks to try to prove them wrong and earn their space in the oppression olympics. Personally, I think those people and you are working within the confines of different definitions that are incompatible. They will mention anecdotal instances of people being discriminatory to white people to prove that they can experience racism too. At best, that's individual racism with little to no impact on underlying societal structures and systems. Isolated experiences by some white people don't equal their collective oppression as a group. They are not collectively discriminated against and there's very little evidence (in the US and Canada, at least) that this has ever been the case. Your article talks about systemic racism which is an academic definition and an expansion of the umbrella of racism to include the inequities embedded in the socio-economic and political contexts of different countries that disproportionately impact minority communities (police brutality, loan and housing practices, job discrimination etc.). White people are not party to this definition. And if this is the definition that we have widely begun to accept as "racism," then your thesis is correct. Reverse racism does not exist.